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Among the following malignancies and its associated tumour markers, which one predicts the best overall prognosis with the normalisation of its tumour marker?
Which of the following tumour is least likely to respond to chemotherapy?
A 78-year-old man presents with multiple sites of significant bone pain due to metastatic prostate cancer. He refuses bilateral orchidectomy. A decision is made to start a luteinising-hormone releasing-hormone (gonadotrophin-releasing hormone) agonist.
Which one of the following best describes the likely subsequent clinical events?
The normalization of which tumour marker predicts the best overall survival?
A 70 year old man has a diagnosis of castrate resistant metastatic prostate cancer with metastasis to the nodes and bones. He has been started on oral Abiraterone 1g daily along with prednisone 5mg twice daily.
What is the rationale for giving prednisone together with Abiraterone?
What is the most common cell type in renal cell carcinoma?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for renal cell carcinoma?
What is the median survival of metastatic renal cell carcinoma?
Where does the tumour cells in renal cell carcinoma arise from?
What is the recommended first line treatment for metastatic renal cell carcinoma in patients with intermediate to poor risk disease?
A 45-year-old man with metastatic renal cell carcinoma is undergoing treatment with an immune checkpoint inhibitor. Two months into the therapy, he develops severe diarrhea and abdominal pain.
A colonoscopy reveals ulcerative lesions, and biopsies confirm the presence of immune-mediated colitis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
In a patient on Sunitinib for metastatic renal cell cancer, which of the following is a good indicator of response to this medication?
A 54-year-old college professor with high-risk, resected renal cell carcinoma (RCC) has completed adjuvant therapy with pembrolizumab. During a routine follow-up visit, the patient inquires about the rationale behind choosing pembrolizumab over other agents for adjuvant therapy.
Which of the following best supports the use of pembrolizumab as adjuvant therapy in this clinical scenario?
A 58-year-old male with metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) has been receiving treatment with a vascular endothelial growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor (VEGF-R TKI). He presents to the clinic with complaints of progressive fatigue, cold intolerance, and unintentional weight gain over the past two months.
His physical examination is notable for dry skin, bradycardia, and delayed ankle reflexes. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels with low free thyroxine (T4).
Which of the following is the most likely complication of VEGF-R TKI therapy in this patient?
A 20-year-old man presents with 3-month history of progressive non-productive cough and increasing shortness of breath that has not improved despite 2 weeks course of antibiotics. There is no history of fever, chills, or weight loss. On physical examination, temperature is 37.1 C , blood pressure is 120/68 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. The lungs are clear. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
His CXR shows multiple pulmonary nodules consistent with metastatic disease. CT scan of the chest confirms metastatic lesions in the lungs and retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy. Testicular ultrasonography shows a slightly enlarged right testicle.
Laboratory studies show a Lactate dehydrogenase of 310 U/L, α-Fetoprotein 1289 ng/mL and β-Human chorionic gonadotropin 6247 mU/mL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A 23-year-old man is seen in an outpatient clinic following a post resection of a stage I non-seminomatous testicular germ cell tumour with vascular invasion (High risk).
Since his surgery, he has been highly anxious and have been worried about the risk of recurrence and have been putting his job and marriage on-hold until he can know for sure that his cancer has been ‘cured’. He is open to the idea of undergoing chemotherapy if offered.
So in this situation, what would be the most appropriate next step in management?
A 23-year-old man have just undergone a radical inguinal orchidectomy for a stage I nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumour with no vascular invasion (low risk). As part of the active surveillance program, how frequent should he be followed up in clinic in his first year of surgery?
Which of the following feature would strongly support the presence of a non-seminoma germ cell tumor compared to a seminoma?
A 25-year-old man is evaluated post resection of a stage I seminomatous testicular germ cell tumour with no vascular invasion (low risk).
The most appropriate next step in his management is:
A 38 year old man has been recently diagnosed with right testicular cancer that was found on self-examination. He had a right orchiectomy performed 2 weeks ago. Histology confirms this as seminoma, pT1bNx. The maximum dimension of the lesion is 54 x 48 x 35mm. The lesion appears to involve the rete testis. CT staging does not show any evidence of metastasis. His serum B-HCG and alpha-fetoprotein is within normal limits.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?
Which of the following cancers have the best chance of long term survival even with the presence of metastasis?
A 15-year-old male presented with a history of successful treatment for a testicular germ cell tumor at the age of 12. The therapeutic regimen included cisplatin, etoposide (also known as VP-16), and bleomycin.Â
Three years following successful treatment for a testicular germ cell tumor with a regimen comprising cisplatin, etoposide, and bleomycin, a 15-year-old male is at increased risk for which of the following long-term complications?
What is the leading cause of death for survivors of testicular tumors following successful chemotherapy?
Which of the following is the best diagnostic tool to detect early lung toxicity secondary to Bleomycin?
26 year old man has been treated with two previous chemotherapy regimens for metastatic sarcoma. On assessment, he appears tired and requiring regular opioid analgesia. He needs to rest more than half the day in bed.
What is the patient’s ECOG performance status?
FDG-PET is least useful in the staging of which type of malignancy?
Which of the following gene mutation is associated with increased risk of breast cancer in males?
The Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) is associated with which type of malignancy?
A 65-year-old man presents for a routine health check-up. He has no specific complaints but is interested in cancer screening due to his age.
Considering the epidemiological trends in Australia, which of the following cancers is he most at risk of being diagnosed with?
Which of the following does not have any role in the management of hypercalcemia caused by bony metastasis secondary to prostate cancer?
In the management of metastatic castration-sensitive prostate cancer (mCSPC), which form of androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) is considered the mainstay of treatment with variable durability?
A 68-year-old man with de novo, high-volume metastatic castration-sensitive prostate cancer (mCSPC) is being considered for intensification of therapy. He has a performance status of 1 and no significant comorbidities.
In addition to androgen deprivation therapy (ADT), which of the following treatment strategies is most likely to improve his overall survival based on the recent advances in the management of mCSPC?
Prostate-Specific Membrane Antigen (PSMA) plays a significant role in the diagnosis and treatment of prostate cancer.
Which of the following statements best describes the role of PSMA in prostate cancer management?
When considering the treatment of metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer (mCRPC), what is a potential benefit of using darolutamide over other androgen receptor inhibitors?
A 72-year-old man with metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer (mCRPC) presents for consideration of further treatment. He has previously received androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) with progression to mCRPC and has not received chemotherapy or novel androgen receptor targeted therapies during the castration-sensitive stage. He does not have a known BRCA1/BRCA2 mutation.
Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate for this patient?