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Which of the ART is associated with high risk of myocardial infarction?
HIV modifies the natural history of HBV in the following ways except?
A patient with HIV co-infected with Hepatitis B has been recently started on Emtricitabine-Tenofovir (Truvada) is noted to have worsening of her liver function test.
Serologies for Hep A, C and D are negative.
What is the most likely cause?
In patients with HIV and hepatitis B co-infection with decompensated cirrhosis, which of the following medication is contraindicated?
For patient with HIV and Hepatitis B co-infection.
Which treatment should be used to treat the Hep B infection if the patient is not yet on ART?
Monotherapy is not recommended for the treatment of Hepatitis B in patients with HIV(not requiring ART) as it may lead to HIV resistance in this patient population.
Which of the following treatment is least likely to lead to HIV resistance?
What is the treatment of choice for HCV in people with HIV and HCV co-infection?
In patients with HIV ,which of the following opportunistic infection occurs at all CD4 cell counts?
A patient with known HIV has the following CSF findings:
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 46 year old man with known HIV presented with odynophagia, dysphagia and retrosternal pain.
An upper endoscopy is performed and a diagnosis of esophageal candidiasis is made.
He is treated with fluconazole but is currently not effective.
What is the next step?
A patient with known HIV with a low CD4 count presents with the following CSF profile:
CT scan shows multiple ring enhancing lesion with mass effect.
What is the first line treatment?
At what level of CD4 count is CMV disease usually seen?
A 50 year old man with known HIV, CD4 <50/uL presented with odynophagia, dysphagia and retrosternal pain.
An upper endoscopy is performed which showed shallow ulcers in distal esophagus.
What is the most appropriate treatmnet?
What is the approximate half-life of serum immunoglobulin M (IgM)?
Which immunoglobulin in human breast milk is the most immunoprotective?
Cytokine regulation (especially involving interleukin 2) is least affected by which one of the following immunosuppressive drugs?
A type 2 helper T lymphocyte (Th2 cell) differs most from a type 1 helper T lymphocyte (Th1 cell) in which one of the following?
Peptides derived from degraded intracellular proteins will bind to which molecule?
Four cytokines produced by T cells are listed:
interleukin 2 (IL-2)
interleukin 4 (IL-4)
interleukin 5 (IL-5)
interferon gamma (IFNγ)
nations would best reflect a Th2 type T cell immune response?
Secretion of which of the following cytokines is most characteristic of T helper cells from patients with cell-mediated immune disorders such as multiple sclerosis?
Memory T lymphocytes differ most from naive T lymphocytes with respect to:
A T lymphocyte encountering its specific antigen in the absence of a co-stimulatory signal via CD28 is least likely to:
T lymphocytes expressing both CD4 and CD8 on the cell surface are most likely to be found in which one of the following anatomical locations in healthy individuals?
Which of the following is the most common clinical picture associated with Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
Which immunological mechanism is the major cause of the destruction of the small intestinal villous architecture in coeliac disease?
The cell population most responsible for driving the pathogenesis of sarcoidosis is:
Secretion of which of the following cytokines is most characteristic of CD4+CD25+ regulatory T lymphocytes (Tregs) in downregulation of immune responses?
A mutation in the FOXP3 gene will most likely cause which of the following disorder?
Which of the following cytokines causes T-cell proliferation?
The cell type playing the predominant role in the early inflammatory phase of an IgE mediated allergic response is the: