Mock Immunology Module 1

In patients with HIV,which of the following opportunistic infection occurs at all CD4 cell counts?

Tuberculosis

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Pneumocystitis (PJP)

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Toxoplasma gondii pneumonitis

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Cryptococcal disease

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CMV pneumonitis

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Lymph nodes are the major site for interaction between antigen presenting cells and:

T cells.

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B cells.

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macrophages

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neutrophils

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NK cells

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What is the approximate half-life of serum immunoglobulin M (IgM)?

7 days

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1 day

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21 days

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3 months

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6 months

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In which of the following does mannose binding lectin (MBL) have the most significant role?

Innate immunity

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Carbohydrate metabolism.

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Fat metabolism.

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Adaptive immunity.

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Cardiovascular homeostasis.

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Which immunoglobulin in human breast milk is the most immunoprotective?

IgA

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IgD

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IgE

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IgG

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IgM

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A deficiency in the following complement/s would usually predispose a patient to disseminated meningococcal infection:

C6, C7, C8

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C1

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C2

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C3

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C4

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Cytokine regulation (especially involving interleukin 2) is least affected by which one of the following immunosuppressive drugs?

Mycophenolate

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Prednisone

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Cyclosporin

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Tacrolimus (FK506).

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Rapamycin

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A type 2 helper T lymphocyte (Th2 cell) differs most from a type 1 helper T lymphocyte (Th1 cell) in which one of the following?

Production of interleukin 5 (IL-5).

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Surface expression of CD4.

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Surface expression of major histocompatibility gene complex (MHC) class II.

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Production of interleukin 3 (IL-3).

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Responsiveness to antigen presented by macrophages.

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Entry of HIV into host cell occurs via which protein?

gp120

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gp41

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p24

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p17

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p7

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Peptides derived from degraded intracellular proteins will bind to which molecule?

MHC Class I

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MHC Class II

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Dendritic cell

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Platelet

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Macrophage

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All of the following statements are true regarding the R5 Strain of the human immunodeficiency virus except?

More aggressive

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Non syncytial inducing

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Infects macrophages and T cells

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Uses CCR5 for CD4 cell entry

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Most frequently transmitted

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Four cytokines produced by T cells are listed:

interleukin 2 (IL-2)
interleukin 4 (IL-4)
interleukin 5 (IL-5)
interferon gamma (IFNγ)

Which combination would best reflect a Th2 type T cell immune response?

IL-4, IL-5.

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IL-2, IFNγ.

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IL-2, IL-4.

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IL-4, IFNγ.

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IL-5, IFNγ.

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Secretion of which of the following cytokines is most characteristic of T helper cells from patients with cell-mediated immune disorders such as multiple sclerosis?

Interferon – gamma (IFN-γ).

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Interleukin – 4 (IL-4).

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Interleukin – 10 (IL-10).

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Interleukin – 12 (IL-12).

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Interferon – beta (IFN-β).

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During an acute infection with a virus, which of the following is the most important antigen-specific immune response that eradicates viruses from the body?

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

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IgG antibody

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IgM antibody.

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Interferon.

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Secretory antibody.

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Memory T lymphocytes differ most from naive T lymphocytes with respect to:

cell surface expression of CD45Ro

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the cytokines they produce

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cell surface expression of adhesion molecules

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cell surface expression of MHC class II.

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their response to alloantigens

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A 30-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of fever, sore throat, headache, myalgia, and diarrhea following a trip to Thailand.

On examination, he has a fever of 38°C, pharyngeal edema, hyperemia, and sharply demarcated ulcers on the oral mucosa. Laboratory tests reveal moderate neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, mild anemia, lymphopenia with atypical lymphocytes (predominantly CD8 cells), and elevated liver enzymes (ALT and AST).

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Acute HIV-1 infection

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EBV infection

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CMV infection

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Syphilis

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Viral hepatitis

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A T lymphocyte encountering its specific antigen in the absence of a co-stimulatory signal via CD28 is least likely to:

proliferate

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undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death).

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become anergic (unresponsive to appropriate stimulation).

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produce low levels of helper T cell type 1 (Th1) cytokines.

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produce low levels of helper T cell type 2 (Th2) cytokines.

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T lymphocytes expressing both CD4 and CD8 on the cell surface are most likely to be found in which one of the following anatomical locations in healthy individuals?

Thymus

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Bone marrow

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Peripheral blood.

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Lymph nodes.

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Spleen

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Which of the following is the most common clinical picture associated with Immunoglobulin G (IgG) subclass deficiency?

Recurrent bacterial sinopulmonary infections

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Autoimmune disease.

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Chronic gastrointestinal disease.

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Normal phenotype

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Refractory asthma.

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Which of the following is the most powerful predictor of progression to AIDS?

number of CD4+ lymphocytes

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loss of antibody to p24 antigen

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HIV p24 antigenaemia

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decreased number of CD8+ T cells

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loss of antibody to p53 (reverse transcriptase)

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Which immunological mechanism is the major cause of the destruction of the small intestinal villous architecture in coeliac disease?

Activation of T lymphocytes

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Activation of B lymphocytes.

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Secretion of anti-endomysial antibodies

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Secretion of antigliadin antibodies

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Secretion of tissue transglutaminase antibodies

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In chronic granulomatous disease, the mechanism of abnormal phagocytic cell function is:

failure to produce reactive oxygen intermediates.

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abnormalities of the mannose-binding lectin (MBL) pathway.

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cyclical variation in haematopoiesis.

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deficiency of myeloperoxidase within the phagocyte granules.

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lack of beta 2-integrin adhesion molecules on neutrophils.

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The cell population most responsible for driving the pathogenesis of sarcoidosis is:

type 1 helper T lymphocyte (Th1 cell).

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macrophage

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fibroblast

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B lymphocyte.

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type 2 helper T lymphocyte (Th2 cell).

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Secretion of which of the following cytokines is most characteristic of CD4+CD25+ regulatory T lymphocytes (Tregs) in downregulation of immune responses?

Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)

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Interferon gamma (IFN-γ).

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Interleukin-4 (IL-4).

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Interferon-beta (IFN-β).

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Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)

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Which of the following ART causes pancreatitis?

Didanosine

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Efavirenz

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Abacavir

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Zidovudine

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Nelfinavir

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A mutation in the FOXP3 gene will most likely cause which of the following disorder?

Immune Dysfunction, Polyendocrinopathy,Enteropathy,X-linked (IPEX)

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Autoimmune Polyendocrinopathy with candidiasis and ectodermal dystrophy (APECED)

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Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)

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Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

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Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

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What is the mechanism of Type 4 hypersensitivity?

T cell mediated

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Specific IgE on mast cell

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IgG cytotoxic

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Immune complex deposition

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B cell mediated

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Which of the following cytokine causes T-cell proliferation?

Interleukin-2

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Interleukin-4.

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Interleukin-5

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Interleukin-8

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Interleukin-10

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The cell type that plays a predominant role in the early inflammatory phase of an IgE mediated allergic response is the:

mast cell.

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basophil

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eosinophil

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monocyte

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neutrophil

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Which of the following ART is associated with increased risk of myocardial infarction?

Lopinavir/Ritonavir

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Nevirapine

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Efavirenz

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Delavirdine

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Etravirine

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What is the mechanism of action of Raltegravir?

Integrase inhibitor

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Fusion inhibitor

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Co-receptor antagonist

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Protease inhibitor

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Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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Which of the following is a major immunological abnormality in advanced HIV infection?

Polyclonal B cell activation

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

A fall in CD8: CD4 ratio in peripheral blood

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A hyperacute cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased natural killer cell activity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Marked lymphopnenia with reduced CD8+ cells

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

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Mock Immunology Module 1

Study Materials

Immunology Study Notes

Cellular and Molecular Immunology

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